Is Pious Pious Socrates?

by | Last updated on January 24, 2024

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Socrates asks whether the gods love the pious

because it is the pious, or whether the pious is pious only because it is loved by the gods (10a). Socrates and Euthyphro both contemplate the first option: surely the gods love the pious because it is the pious.

Is pious pious because god loves pious Socrates?

answer:

To be pious is to be loved by all the gods

. … Socrates and Euthyphro agree that they must be loved by the gods because they are pious. But, says Socrates, in that case, being pious cannot be the same thing as being god-beloved. Because something that is god-beloved is so because it is loved by the gods.

What is Socrates getting at when he says is the pious being loved by the gods because it is pious or is it pious because it is being loved by the gods 12 )?

He thinks this because one action that is

pious is giving offerings and sacrifices to the gods

, it is pious because the gods like it. Socrates does not think that definition is good because different gods love different things. … Definition he suggests as a replacement is that pious is what all the gods love.

What is Euthyphro’s first definition of the pious?

RICHARD SHARVY. SWARTHMORE COLLEGE. At 7a Euthyphro proposes his first definition of

piety and impiety

: what the gods like is pious, and what they dislike is impious. Socrates notes that the gods supposedly disagree about many things, and that there seem to be some things that are both loved and hated by the gods.

How does Socrates define pious?

Euthyphro seems to be taken aback so Socrates reminds him the definitions he gave previously (10e).

He had said that something is loved by the gods because it is pious

, which means that their love follows from something inherent in the pious.

Why does Socrates want to know what piety is?

Socrates then wants to know if piety is

a part of justice

, and if it is, of what part does it consist? Euthyphro replies that piety is that part of justice that attends to the gods, just as there is another part of justice that attends to men. This, too, is unsatisfactory because we do not know what “attends” means.

What do Socrates and Euthyphro agree on?

Socrates has Euthyphro agree with him that

there must be one form or standard by which everything holy is holy and everything unholy

, by contrast with the holy, is unholy. That is, all holy deeds must be holy by virtue of some feature or other that all holy deeds share in common.

What all the gods love is pious and what they all hate is impious?

Euthyphro 9e-11b. “the

pious

is what all the gods love, and the opposite, what all the gods hate, is the impious.” … In other words, that which is pious is the same as that which is loved by all of the gods, according to Euthyphro.

How do you solve the euthyphro dilemma?

One possible response to the Euthyphro Dilemma is to simply

accept that if God does command cruelty, then inflicting it upon others would be morally obligatory

.

Who did Socrates question in the apology?

He cites their contempt as the reason for his being put on trial. Socrates then proceeds to interrogate

Meletus

, the man primarily responsible for bringing Socrates before the jury. This is the only instance in The Apology of the elenchus, or cross-examination, which is so central to most Platonic dialogues.

Is pious pious because?

Socrates asks whether the gods love the pious because it is the pious, or whether the pious is pious only because

it is loved by the gods

(10a). … After all, what makes the god-beloved the god-beloved is the fact that the gods love it, whereas what makes the pious the pious is something else (9d-11a).

Are the acts pious because god loves them or does god love them because they are pious?

The explanation runs in a circle—it commits the fallacy of Begging the Question. Euthyphro effectively claims that acts are pious because the

gods love

them but that the gods love them because they are pious—which amounts to saying that acts are pious because they are pious, and that is no explanation at all.

What is dear to the gods is pious?

2nd Definition:

Piety is what is loved by the gods

(“dear to the gods” in some translations); impiety is what is hated by the gods. … On this definition, these things will be both pious and impious, which makes no sense. 3rd Definition: Piety is what is loved by all the gods. Impiety is what all the gods hate.

Is pious and piety the same?

Pious can be used positively to describe those who are dutiful or virtuous, or things that are worthy. And it can be used negatively to describe hypocrisy. … Piety, which most often refers to simple religious devotion,

doesn’t have the same problem

, and is more widely used in biblical translations.

Do you think that there is a clear definition of piety that euthyphro could have presented that would have satisfied Socrates?

Socrates rejects this because it is not a definition; it is only an example or instance of piety. … Socrates says it is not clear what makes anything dear to the gods, and what is dear to some of them ma not be dear to the others. Euthyphro then insists that piety is that

which is pleasing to all of the gods

.

What is Socrates famous question to euthyphro after he proposes his third definition?

The most famous of these is the third definition:

piety is that which the gods love

. Socrates exposes a problem with this by presenting what is now called the “Euthyphro Dilemma”: do the gods love the pious because it is pious, or is something pious because the gods love it.

Amira Khan
Author
Amira Khan
Amira Khan is a philosopher and scholar of religion with a Ph.D. in philosophy and theology. Amira's expertise includes the history of philosophy and religion, ethics, and the philosophy of science. She is passionate about helping readers navigate complex philosophical and religious concepts in a clear and accessible way.