answer:
To be pious is to be loved by all the gods
. … Socrates and Euthyphro agree that they must be loved by the gods because they are pious. But, says Socrates, in that case, being pious cannot be the same thing as being god-beloved. Because something that is god-beloved is so because it is loved by the gods.
What is Socrates getting at when he says is the pious being loved by the gods because it is pious or is it pious because it is being loved by the gods 12 )?
He thinks this because one action that is
pious is giving offerings and sacrifices to the gods
, it is pious because the gods like it. Socrates does not think that definition is good because different gods love different things. … Definition he suggests as a replacement is that pious is what all the gods love.
Who believes that something is pious because it is loved?
Socrates
asks whether the gods love the pious because it is the pious, or whether the pious is pious only because it is loved by the gods (10a).
What is Socrates objection to Euthyphro’s claim that justice is what is loved by the gods?
Socrates’ Objection: According to Euthyphro, the gods sometimes disagree among themselves about questions of justice. So some things are loved by some gods and hated by others. On this definition, these things will be both pious and impious, which makes no sense. 3rd Definition:
Piety
is what is loved by all the gods.
What is the difference in saying that something is pious because the gods love it and saying that the gods love something because it is pious?
The difference in saying that something is pious because the gods love it and saying that the gods love something because it is pious is that
the first asserts that whatever the gods love is pious
(i.e., that piety has no intrinsic quality). Under this definition, if the gods love suicide bombers, this would be pious.
What all the gods love is pious and what they all hate is impious?
Euthyphro 9e-11b. “the
pious
is what all the gods love, and the opposite, what all the gods hate, is the impious.” … In other words, that which is pious is the same as that which is loved by all of the gods, according to Euthyphro.
Is pious because God loves pious?
answer:
To be pious is to be loved by all the gods
. … Socrates and Euthyphro agree that they must be loved by the gods because they are pious. But, says Socrates, in that case, being pious cannot be the same thing as being god-beloved. Because something that is god-beloved is so because it is loved by the gods.
What does it mean to be pious Socrates?
Euthyphro’s second definition:
Piety is what is pleasing to the gods
. (6e–7a) Socrates applauds this definition, because it is expressed in a general form, but criticizes it saying that the gods disagree among themselves as to what is pleasing.
Why does Socrates believe it is wrong to say that what makes something pious is the fact that the gods love it?
Then the god-loved is not the same as the pious, Euthyphro, nor the pious the same as the god-loved, as you say it is, but one differs from the other. Socrates defends his statement: Because we agree that
the pious is being loved
for this reason, that it is pious, but it is not pious because it is being loved.
Does Socrates reject the definition of piety as what all the gods love because there are pious actions that not all the gods love because there are non pious actions that not all the gods love or for neither reason?
Socrates rejects Euthyphro’s action
, because it is not a definition of piety, and is only an example of piety, and does not provide the essential characteristic that makes pious actions pious. Euthyphro’s second definition: Piety is what is pleasing to the gods/ what is approved by the gods.
What bias do you seek?
So when Socrates asks, “Whose bias do you seek”, we are meant to infer that everything that we read and hear has a bias about it,
trying to influence us to join one side or the other
. Jay-Z then continues to say, “all for Plato”, which is a reference to Plato’s belief in the afterlife and the soul.
What do Socrates and Euthyphro agree on?
Socrates has Euthyphro agree with him that
there must be one form or standard by which everything holy is holy and everything unholy
, by contrast with the holy, is unholy. That is, all holy deeds must be holy by virtue of some feature or other that all holy deeds share in common.
What is the point of Euthyphro?
This essay will argue that the point of the Euthyphro is to show why certain definitions of
piety
are unsatisfactory and through this to guide the reader towards a Socratic definition of piety.
Is pious and piety the same?
Pious can be used positively to describe those who are dutiful or virtuous, or things that are worthy. And it can be used negatively to describe hypocrisy. … Piety, which most often refers to simple religious devotion,
doesn’t have the same problem
, and is more widely used in biblical translations.
What charge is euthyphro bringing forward and against whom?
Euthyphro: pressing
charges against his father for murder
. A servant killed another one of the slaves and so the father tied the servant up and left him in a ditch to ask for help and in the process the servant died. What is Socrates point at 6d-e?
What is euthyphro’s first answer to the question?
Socrates first says that the gods often fight and the fights are not over facts. But according to Euthyphro’s definition, that would mean that those things are both holy and unholy, since they are approved of by some gods and disapproved of by others, he then goes on
to question what is just and what is good
.
