What Was The Main Difference Between The English East India Company And The French Company?

by | Last updated on January 24, 2024

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Britain was a constitutional monarchy, France was an absolute monarchy. This meant that there were legal differences in who/what the companies were responsible to. The English (later British) East India Company was responsible to the British Parliament . The French Company had no such legislature to answer to.

What is the difference between British and East India Company?

One was a private company , and the other was direct rule by the British Crown. The East India Company – a powerful and private profit-making corporation that built up a private army, paved the way for rule by the British Crown. The British Raj transitioned India from commercial power to colonial power.

What is the difference between the Dutch East India Company and the British East India Company?

While the strategy of the Dutch East India Company functioned by coercion and monopolizing the Asian trade routes, the balance of power shifted to the English East India Company because of their strategy to focus on textiles, improve their financing methods and allow private merchants to make a profit, as well.

Why did the French East India Company lose the English East India Company?

Because the French economy saw more profit from trade in the West Indies, the French East India Company lacked government support . Its monopoly over French trade with India was ended in 1769, and thereafter the company languished until its disappearance during the French Revolution in 1789.

What is the another name of English East India Company?

The East India Company (EIC), also known as the Honourable East India Company (HEIC) , East India Trading Company (EITC), the English East India Company or (after 1707) the British East India Company, and informally known as John Company, Company Bahadur, or simply The Company was an English, and later British, joint- ...

How did British enter India?

The British East India Company came to India as traders in spices , a very important commodity in Europe back then as it was used to preserve meat. Apart from that, they primarily traded in silk, cotton, indigo dye, tea and opium. They landed in the Indian subcontinent on August 24, 1608, at the port of Surat.

How did British capture India?

The British presence in India began through trade . Men like Robert Clive of the British East India Company combined military prowess with a ruthless ambition and became fabulously wealthy. With wealth came power, and traders took control of huge swathes of India.

Why did the Dutch leave India?

Netherland had got independence from Spanish Empire in 1581. Due to war of independence, the ports in Spain for Dutch were closed . This forced them to find out a route to India and east to enable direct trade.

Does the VOC still exist?

Along with the Dutch West India Company (WIC/GWIC), the VOC was seen as the international arm of the Dutch Republic and the symbolic power of the Dutch Empire. ... After the financially disastrous Fourth Anglo-Dutch War (1780–1784), the company was nationalised in 1796, and finally dissolved on 31 December 1799 .

Why was the VOC so successful?

Lucrative trade

A pioneer of outward direct foreign investment, the company’s operations expanded significantly in Asia during the 1620s. ... The VOC was able to sell its spices at 14 to 17 times the price it paid for them in Asia, since they were so valuable and rare in Europe.

Did French invade India?

The French came to India mainly with a purpose of trade and commerce. From their arrival until 1741 AD, the objectives of the French, like those of the British, were purely commercial. The French East India Company took hold of Yanam in 1723 AD , Mahe on Malabar Coast in 1725 AD and Karaikal in 1739 AD.

Who was the first British to land in India?

Explanation: John Mildenhall , a merchant adventurer, was the first Englishman who arrived in India in 1599 AD, by the overland route, ostensibly for the purpose of trade with Indian merchants.

When did French invade India?

The French settlement in India began in 1673 with the purchase of land at Chandernagore from the Mughal Governor of Bengal. The next year they acquired Pondicherry from the Sultan of Bijapur. Both became the centres of maritime commercial activities of the French in India.

Who ruled India before British?

The Mughals ruled over a population in India that was two-thirds Hindu, and the earlier spiritual teachings of the Vedic tradition remained influential in Indian values and philosophy. The early Mughal empire was a tolerant place. Unlike the preceding civilisations, the Mughals controlled a vast area of India.

Why was the East India Company so successful?

The main reason for the involvement and influence of the EIC in the Indian Subcontinent is trade . They first entered the region as a charted joint-stock company to conduct trade. The trade of spices had proved highly profitable and the British wanted to have a share in this market.

When did England take over India?

British raj, period of direct British rule over the Indian subcontinent from 1858 until the independence of India and Pakistan in 1947.

Ahmed Ali
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Ahmed Ali
Ahmed Ali is a financial analyst with over 15 years of experience in the finance industry. He has worked for major banks and investment firms, and has a wealth of knowledge on investing, real estate, and tax planning. Ahmed is also an advocate for financial literacy and education.